Tuesday 12 January 2016

Is my Bible “Holy” or “corrupt”?


In part 1 Discerningwhat is a “Holy Bible” I established that we do not need to have copies of the original texts and be fluent in them in order to be able to discredit any translation of the Holy Bible into English or any other language for that matter. Nor do we need to compare one translation to another of the same language, which is a mistake that many people make. A Bible will discredit itself as being a “Holy Bible” if within that Bible it contains “contradictions”. As God is not the author of confusion, then God’s Word “will not” say one thing in one place of the Bible and then say something profoundly different or even the complete opposite somewhere else within the same Bible, regardless of the language it is written.

A simple test that anyone can do themself is to test both the “Old Testament” and the “New Testament” for irregularities (contradictions). In doing-so you must not have a preconceived opinion of any one translation being more accurate than another. Why? Because the results will speak volumes for themselves. The test may well discredit your favourite translation, however if that proves to be the case, will that not be a Blessing?

The first test is a case of “here in 1 chapter and gone in the next”.


In every translation of the Bible into English that I have read, they all state in Genesis Chapter 1, that God “created” all the vegetation of the Earth on the 3rd day. And in all of them it was “seen to be done”. The wording varies slightly between translations, however they all mean the same. i.e. “and it was so” or “And that's what happened” or “and that is how it was” or “and it was done” or “And so it was” or “And there it was” or “And it happened” or “And that's exactly what happened” or “And that is what happened” or “And it was so done” or “And it came so to passé” or “and it was done so”.

The problem with most translations arrises when you turn to Genesis Chapter 2 verses 4-6, where many state, “no vegetation existed” before the 6th day when God Formed man from the dust of the Earth in verse 7.


The second test is a case of “Jesus son of Joseph (mortal) or “Jesus Son of God (immortal).


In every translation of the Bible into English that I have read, they all state in Matthew Chapter 1 verse 20, that a virgin named Mary was with child (pregnant) by the Holy Ghost/Spirit. The wording varies slightly between translations, however they all mean the same.

The problem with most translations arrises when you turn to 2 Timothy Chapter 2 verse 8, where many state that “Jesus is a descendant of David” meaning the mortal Son of Joseph (from David’s seed), rather than “Jesus of the seed of David” (of the same seed). Was Jesus conceived as a natural descendant of David through the seed of Joseph or by an immaculate conception through a miracle of God?


God Bless you all in the name of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.

END OF PART 2

© Copyright 2016 by Christopher John Petersen.

No comments:

Post a Comment